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Did Adam, Eve, and the Patriarchs know God's Personal Name before Moses?

metouro
in Faith Issues

  • In
    Genesis 14:22,     it is stated,

     

    " But Abram said to the king of Sodom, “I now raise my hand and
    solemnly swear to [God's Personal Name]    , maker of
    heaven and earth, that I won’t take a...."

      

    Yet, later, in Exodus 6:3, God speaks to Moses and
    states,

     

    "I
    appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob as El Shadday, but I didn’t
    make myself known to them by my name, [God's Personal Name]."

     

    Did
    Abraham know God's Name as [God's Personal Name]", blessed be His Name, as in
    Genesis 14:22?  If he did, then what does Exodus 6:3 mean?

     

     

    There
    are many instances of God’s Personal Name being used going all the way back to
    Eve in the copies of the Hebrew Manuscripts that give us the current protestant
    versions of the Bible, including the NKJV, NRSV, etc.  In Most English
    speaking Bibles, LORD (Al RUBB, in Arabic) in capital letters are used to designate
    “Adonai”, the Hebrew word for LORD to replace God’s Personal Name.

     

    When
    reviewing the Names of God in the latest Hebrew copies of the Bible, it appears
    that going all the way back to Eve in the book of Genesis, God’s Personal name
    was known.  There is a Bible translation called, “NOG- Name of God Bible”
    that avoids the Jewish tradition of replacing God’s name with other epithets
    and uses the original Names ascribed to God such as the description EL/Elohim
    and El Elyon, meaning Most High, and God Almighty, and His personal name,
    blessed be His Name, “Y__H”

     

    One
    explanation I cam across holds that God’s Personal Name, blessed be His Name,
    WAS known prior to Moses, even to Abraham and all way back to Eve, but that the
    full meaning of His Personal Name, was not fully experienced or understood
    until the time of Moses and the exodus, but I have trouble swallowing that
    interpretation, given the plain reading of the English, “..I didn’t make myself
    known to them by my name, Y____h”.  For example, the Bible says about Eve
    in Genesis 4:1

     

    “..... She said, “I have gotten the man that [God's Personal Name] promised.”

     

    Which in the NKJV is worded, ".... and said,
    “I have acquired a man from the Lord.” 

Comments

  • metouro
    Does anyone know why Exodus 6:3 says that God's Personal Name was not known before Moses even though Eve and the Patriarchs use His Personal Name before Moses?
  • mabsootamabsoota
    firstly, the name 'Lord' or 'Yahweh' is not a personal name like 'bob' or 'david'.
    it is the name in the sense of being a description of the essence of God. 

    the Bible means to say that God revealed His essence in a greater way to Moses when He powerfully resisted the egyptian army of pharoah. 

    also in exodus 3:14, the Lord God uses the name 'I am / I am the existing one' 
    (in arabic انا كائن ), which is the same name our Lord Christ used when He was arrested in john 18:5.

    there are many names of God, and often the word 'name' is used to mean 'description'. 
    the people who labelled one of these 'God's personal name' probably need to read the church fathers in more detail in order to understand this better.

    to understand God's nature better, check out this great book:
  • metouro
    So then God's Personal Name being revealed first to Moses and not To Abraham and the Patriarch as indicate in Exodus 6:3 means that the full meaning of His Personal Name, was not fully experienced or understood until the time of Moses and the exodus even though the pronunciation of His Personal Name was known?
  • metouro
    In Genesis 4:1 and Genesis 14:22, Moses records that Eve and Abraham uttered God's Persona Name. He also says in Exodus 6:3 that God's Personal Name was not revealed to Abraham, Isaac or Jacob. so meaning of knowing God's personal name must mean something other than the mere pronunciation of it. But I am not sure and that is what I am trying to find out from an Orthodox perspective but can not find any sayings of the Fathers on the matter.
    If anyone does know if a the Fathers' saying on the matter, please post here. God bless you.

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