Good evening my brothers and sisters in Christ!
May God bestow His grace and mercy upon my weakness.
I was approached by 2 people from South Korea who claim to be "JUST CHRISTIAN." They say they are of no denomination?????????
Their claim was that in genesis, it uses elohim which is the plural 'gods' whereas elohoum is the singular god. it also says in the bible "let US create man in OUR image..." but goes on to use only the singular form as in "He created them...."
The question is, "does the US mean that there is a God the father and God the mother?"
What are our church teachings?
Your brother in Christ,
Peter Morcos
Pray for my weakness.
I have sinned, forgive me.
Comments
In linguistics, the term used for this is "T/V distinction", since the distinction is often marked in European languages by some alteration of forms beginning with "t" for the personal/familiar form, and "v" for the respectful/distanced form (e.g., "tu"/"vos" in Spanish, or "ty"/"vy" in Russian). Sometimes the forms do not manifest themselves as paradigm-forming t/v pairs, but instead as different titles used in place of any form of pronoun (I have heard Lebanese Arabic speakers use "ra'is" in place of "sayed" or what have you).
Anyway, I don't know Hebrew myself, but I have not heard any Hebrew-speaking person even attempt to make the argument your South Korean friends have. It sounds highly unorthodox and strange to me. I would not indulge it, if I were you.
As well, can you help me define the bride that is mentioned about in the book of Revelations?
Thanks again.
It is in reference to the Holy Trinity...The Father, The Son, and The Holy Spirit. As we start any type of prayer whether it be in the liturgical services or to our personal prayers we start with what? In the Name of The Father, The Son and The Holy Spirit,[shadow=red,left][glow=red,2,300]ONE GOD![/glow][/shadow]Amen.
i second that......the belief and understanding of the mystery of the Holy Trinity is considered universal amongst all Christian Churches (Orthodox, Catholic and Protestant)....if you don't belief in the Trinity you are simply not a Christian (without getting into specifics). Upon this, the translators of the NKJV capitalized certain subjects that refer to God in some sense. the example you gave is one.
First off they are using the Masoretic texts and butchering them on top of that. The word usage hints towards the trinity, not a mother. (that is the first I have heard that one) Rely on the Septuagint, it is better.
As for these poor misguided fools, laugh and walk away. These types are beyond deluded, and if I of all people, tell you to walk away, its probably a good idea.
First off they are using the Masoretic texts and butchering them on top of that. The word usage hints towards the trinity, not a mother. (that is the first I have heard that one) Rely on the Septuagint, it is better.
Ioannes, i have a question....why should we rely on a translation of the original if we can go straight to the original??
[quote author=Ioannes link=topic=11516.msg138771#msg138771 date=1306819898]
First off they are using the Masoretic texts and butchering them on top of that. The word usage hints towards the trinity, not a mother. (that is the first I have heard that one) Rely on the Septuagint, it is better.
Ioannes, i have a question....why should we rely on a translation of the original if we can go straight to the original??
Because the masoretic text is not the original, it is a corrupted version of the original Hebrew including anti-Christian modifications.
They tend to do the proselytizing: "two by two". This is similar to the Mormon approach.
God bless you all and Rabina Maakom!
The bride refers to the church.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elohim#Abraham.27s_.22the_gods_caused_me.22
This is why I ask; I've never even seen this before anywhere else.
So does that mean I shouldn't believe a translation of Genesis 20:13 where Abraham says "the gods cause me...?"
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elohim#Abraham.27s_.22the_gods_caused_me.22
This is why I ask; I've never even seen this before anywhere else.
The Apostles - almost without exception - quote from the Septuagint text of scripture when using references in all of the New Testament writings. As mentioned before the existent Hebrew scriptures today show signs of being tampered by the generations which have handed them down to us. One of the most famous examples in psalm 22 where the reference to Christ's hands and feet being pierced is found in the Septuagint but not the modern Hebrew scriptures. The discovery of the dead sea scrolls was a vindication for the Septuagint translation and it has shown that an effort was made to remove the prophecy as it was contained in the ancient Hebrew version but not the latter masoritic text which we're discussing now.
Also we must not underestimate the amount of change which has occurred to the Hebrew text, the current text which is popularly circulated is a middle ages modification of the original Hebrew to include the use of punctuation and breathing marks which we can allege have embellished the meanings rendered in the original.
The wiki article also indicates that the Septuagint translation contains the singular version of this word not the plural.
God bless,
LiD
when god says "I" meaning one as in ONE GOD!
I am thankful that God led me to this post, because just five minutes ago i was studying mahragan El Keraza and that is how the explaned this!
I hope this helps you!
[move]God Bless!![/move]