I know that one can divorce if his spouse has committed adultery, but in Luke 19 : 18 it says, "18Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery." Why is it that in the Book of Matthew it says you can divorce if adultery is committed by the other spouse and marry again without committing adultery, but in Luke it says that whoever divorces his wife and marries another is committing adultery? A person told me about this, and he said that this is why he isn't a Christian anymore. I told him that i will get him an answer. So your help is appreciated.
Comments
Obviously, the opposite if true (if the man cheats, gets a divorce, and a woman accepts to marry him knowing he cheated than she is commiting adultery). But you knew that ;)
Peace
I believe that St. Luke's scenario is different from that which is outlined in the Gospel of St. Matthew.
St. Luke was speaking about divorce at whim and not with the justified reason of adultery, eg, celebrity divorces, Henry VIII (of England), "irreconcilable differences".
St. Matthew was speaking of adultery being a causative factor to lead one to seek a divorce.
I think the person that said this to you was looking for a way out of Christianity.
In regard to St. Matthew, he was being very explicit relative to the influence that was beginning to present itself to the Jews relative to the Romans and Greeks around them.
There is no contradiction.
Also keep in mind that St. Mark's Gospel was already around. The three constitute the Synoptic Gospels.
St. Matthew had a different target "audience" and the deliberate aspects to the Law of Moses.
http://www.amazon.com/Taught-God-Making-Difficult-Sayings/dp/1933275502/ref=tmm_pap_title_0
Daniel