Nativity Mohayar

Amoussa01

My question is for the Coptic linguists. The beginning of the Mohayar for Nativity originally was written as "A Penchoice" and recorded like so. However, I am noticing certain cantors saying "Pachoice." I am aware of the fact that there should be an "A" whenever it is followed by a verb. The text reads: "Our Lord Jesus Christ, was born of the Virgin, in Bethlehem of Judea, according to the prophetic sayings." In this case, there is no verb but a noun...does this this mean that it is correct to say "Pachoice" instead of "A Penchoice?"

ophadece

Yes.. grammatically speaking abanshois is wrong.. bashois is right...
Oujai

Aegyptian

Apen=o=c I=y=c P=,=c@ vy`etac macf `nje ]Par;enoc@ qen By;leem `nte ]Ioude`a@ kata ni`cmy `m`provytikon

It should indeed be Pen=o=c, but not for the reasons you stated. The letter A points out that the sentence is in past tense. But in this case "who was born of the Virgin" is another sentence, and the vy`etac macf "a" already signifies the past tense. Therefore, it's grammatically wrong to have an "a" before pen=o=c I=y=c P=,=c, as it is sentence on it's own.

But in other cases, it's also possible to have "a" followed by a noun, and then followed by a verb. I think I've heard this sentence before in a hymn:
A I=y=c P=,=c tonf ebolqen ...

Remnkemi

The "A" before Pen[oic Iycouc Pi,rictoc in all hymns regardless of grammar is probably a byproduct of cantors who figured all mohayar verses should start with the "a" like the Lent Mohayar Pen[oic Iycouc Pi,rictoc ernycteuin... In the Lent mohayar, it is grammatically correct, unlike most of the other mohayar verses.

This phenomenon is seen all over in the Midnight Psalmody psalies.

ophadece

That's right Remenkimi
AEgyptian, you're not totally correct.. badasmasf literally means "Who has borne Him ... etc".
Oujai